There could have been three million such responses. It still wouldn't change the fact that that's a logically incoherent reading of my comment.
The reason to use racial groups in my example, is first because I happened to know obesity differed between the groups, and second because it offers the opportunity to look at similar groups in different countries. This example shows that there is variance within the country and similarity beyond it, which I think makes a good case that the culture of the country is not what's responsible.
Regarding your point on violence, suppose it were the case that left handed people had a murder rate 100x higher than right handed people. Now, imagine too that the OECD countries, or whichever group you would like to compare America too, were 99% right handed and America were only 90% right handed.
Would it make sense in this case to say that American culture was the root of the problem with American violence if right and left handed Americans committed violence at the same right as their OECD counterparts? I wouldn't think so. I would think the explanation would be as simple as "greater proportion of more violent left handers".
I realize in the violence example that I've simplified and exaggerated the case compared to obesity. I am not claiming that obesity rates are similar to my example.
The reason to use racial groups in my example, is first because I happened to know obesity differed between the groups, and second because it offers the opportunity to look at similar groups in different countries. This example shows that there is variance within the country and similarity beyond it, which I think makes a good case that the culture of the country is not what's responsible.
Regarding your point on violence, suppose it were the case that left handed people had a murder rate 100x higher than right handed people. Now, imagine too that the OECD countries, or whichever group you would like to compare America too, were 99% right handed and America were only 90% right handed.
Would it make sense in this case to say that American culture was the root of the problem with American violence if right and left handed Americans committed violence at the same right as their OECD counterparts? I wouldn't think so. I would think the explanation would be as simple as "greater proportion of more violent left handers".
I realize in the violence example that I've simplified and exaggerated the case compared to obesity. I am not claiming that obesity rates are similar to my example.