First, I very clearly didn't say that they're the same thing so I'm not sure why that would be relevant. Second, that analogy makes no sense other than as a dog-whistle.
Lastly, even all of that aside, there's no rule that says the government can only mandate actions or prohibit actions. There are plenty of examples of both things in the US legal code.
These are not the same thing. One is an inaction, the other is an action.
It's like saying that forcing someone to have an abortion is the same thing as banning abortions.