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> consider that 50% of people are less funny than average

Assuming that average here is an arithmetic mean (which is the most common use, but how are we quantifying "funniness" to warrant such a measure?), this would only be true if we assume a symmetric distribution with no individuals at the average.

This also assumes that objective funniness is even a meaningful concept; funniness is obviously subjective, and I would suspect that people tend to voluntarily socially engage with people that they find pleasant to be around -- part of which is having compatible sense of humor. So, the people you are voluntarily associating with (i.e., the people you are like to play CAH with) are likely to be disproportionately from the upper end of the funniness distribution from your subjective perspective -- and are likely to be among the upper end of the distribution in how they perceive your funniness, as well.



I don't think that the arithmetic mean is appropriate here (see my replies to two sibling comments) but rather the median.

Your second point is a good one - clearly, funniness is subjective. On the other hand, I don't think my argument relies on the precise quantitative definition of funniness!




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